BASIC FUNDAMENTAL QUESTIONS THAT
ANTI-HADITH MODERNISTS NEED TO ANSWER
AND THE NOBLE QUR'AN
1. Is there any verse in the Noble Qur'an that very
clearly and unambiguously state that revelation (wahy)
is only and solely that which is contained in the Noble Qur'an?
2. If the Noble Qur'an only contains "ALL"
of revelation (wahy), then can they please tell us whether the
Hijrah (our beloved Prophet’s Migration from Makkah to Madinah) was done
by Allah's Command (wahy) or whether it was done on the sole
discretion and wish of our beloved Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu Alayhi
Wasallam)? If it was done by Allah's Command, then let them show us where it is
in the Noble Qur'an? If it was done on the Prophet's own wish, then why was Prophet
Yunus (Alayhi Salaam) a victim of Allah's great displeasure when he abandoned
his mission without Allah's consent? Allah thereafter forgave Prophet
Yunus’s erroneous decision after Allah saw sincere repentance in him and
heard his invocation from the stomach of a huge fish or whale.
3. During the historic signing of the Peace Treaty
of Hudaibiyyah, after the Prophet took the oath of allegiance (bay'ah)
on the blood and lives of his close companions, but then later, he went against
the pleasure of his companions and, on very debasing and disrespectful
conditions, signed the Peace Treaty of Hudaibiyyah. Did the Prophet sign this
Peace Treaty by the command of Allah, or did he sign this treaty out of his own
wish? If he did this out of his own wish, then why did he do the exact opposite
of what he had agreed by mutual consultation (Shuraa) with his very close
companions? And if the Prophet signed the Peace Treaty by Allah's Command,
there let them show us which verse of the
Noble Qur'an state this explicitly or implicitly.
4. Our beloved Prophet predicted many things that
are not contained in the Noble Qur'an. Some of these predictions were completed
during the Prophet's lifetime and some others were completed just after his
demise. There was no prophecy that he had made, recorded in authentic
Ahaadith reports, that was proven wrong. What was the means at the
Prophet's disposal of such news of the unseen future? If we say that Allah gave
this news of the unseen future to the Prophet, then why are these not mentioned
in the Noble Qur'an?
5. What is the "BAYAAN" mentioned
in the Noble Qur'an (Chapter 75: Verse 19)?
(a) Did Allah take upon Himself to safeguard this
"BAYAAN" or not?
(b) If Allah did take upon Himself the
responsibility to safeguard this "BAYAAN", did He fulfil His
promise to safeguard it? If Allah did fulfil His promise to safeguard it, then
tell us how?
(c) If we separate this "BAYAAN"
from the Qur'an, then is there any benefit in preserving the mere words of the
Noble Qur'an, especially when each person with his personal limited knowledge
is free to interpret Allah's Kalaam? And is this “free”
interpretation any proof (hujjah) for other Muslims? And if and
when the so-called "Quranic Society" or "Markaz-e-Millah"
(Authority/Centre/Capital of the Muslim Nation) happens to come into existence,
will it be able to fix these “free” and
“liberal-minded” interpretations of Quranic Laws, and will they be
regarded as proof (hujjah) for the Muslim Nation at large?
6. The Noble Qur'an was revealed over a period of
23 years. Was the arrangement of the verses of the chapters done by Allah's
Command or did the Prophet do this arrangement of the verses by himself, as he
thought was best to do? If the arrangement of the verses was not done via
inspiration (ilhaam) or revelation (wahy), then how
can the Qur'an ever be considered a book of revelation or inspiration or
1. If Allah Almighty is not on the Arsh (Throne) or
not above, but present everywhere, then from where was the Noble Qur'an being
(a) For the elevation of the human ego, why does
Mr. Parwez take his “Siraat-e-Mustaqeem” above? (Qurani Faisley -
Urdu: Page 343).
(b) Why does Allah Almighty reveals His Commands
from the “heaven to the earth”? (Nizaam-eRuboobiyyah - Urdu:
EXISTENCE OF ANGELS AND PERSONIFICATION
1. If there is no such creation or external (kharijee)
existence of angels, then who was bringing the Noble Qur'anic verses down upon
the heart of our beloved Prophet?
2. What or who are Jibreel and Mikaa'eel?
Who are the "kiraaman kaatibeen"? What is the reality of the
THREE thousand and FIVE thousand angels that were sent to help the 313 Muslim
warriors in the Battle of Badr?
(WAHY) AND ITS WRITING
1. If the practice of the commands of revelation
(Wahy) is compulsory only after it is written down in book form, then
what about those Prophets who were not given books of revelation but were given
commands by Allah? Was it compulsory for their communities (umam)
to practise those commands of Allah given to their Prophets by way of
revelation (wahy) but which were not written down in book
form? If not, then why were those
nations punished for disobeying the commands of Allah received verbally
via their respective prophets?
2. The Tawraah was revealed to Prophet Moosa
(Alayhi Salaam) only after he was saved from Pharaoh and his
people at the place of Tia. If it was not compulsory on the people of Pharaoh
to obey the commands of revelation (wahy) which had not until
then been recorded in writing, then why were Pharaoh and his people
punished by being drowned in the
1. It is claimed by the modernist Parwezis that the
Deen of Islam was completed during the Prophet's lifetime as indicated by the
verse: "This day, I have perfected your religion for you, completed My
Favour upon you, and have chosen for you Islam as your religion"
(Chapter 5: Verse 3), therefore it is not necessary for the Ahaadith. Then let
them answer one question: If the Deen had already been completed at that time,
then what is the necessity of the "Markaz-e Millah"
(Authority/Centre/Capital of the Muslim Nation) to formulate additional laws
1. It is claimed by the Parwezis that the Noble
Qur'an contains only broad principles.
Its details were, by Allah’s command, left to the Prophet to
consult (make shuraa) with his companions and decide laws and
principles according to their specific circumstances and period of time. Can
these modernist Parwezis give any details of such consultations that was
related to matters of the Shari'ah i.e. the number of Salaah, the times of
Salaah, the number of raka'aat of each Salaah, its sequence etc., or matters
relating to Zakaah and the fixing of its amount, or those related to divorce,
or fosterage (radaa'ah), or inheritance, or jihad and its
NOTE: CONSULTATION (SHURAA) IS DONE ONLY ON WORLDLY AND
POLITICAL MATTERS, NOT ON MATTERS OF THE COMMANDS OF SHARI'AH.
(ZANNI) VERSUS CERTAINTY (YAQEENI)
1. The Parwezis claim that our Deen must be based
on "reality" (yaqeeni), and the Noble Qur'an is
the only "absolute reality". But then let us ask them a
question: Will those things that the "Markaz-e-Millah"
(Authority/Centre/Capital of the Muslim Nation) will explain and decide on the
details that do NOT form part of the Qur'an be regarded as "absolute
reality"? Will this become
part of our Deen for Muslims to follow?
If these details and decisions “can” become part of
our Deen, then why can't the Sunnah of our beloved Prophet become part of the
Shari'ah? If the decisions and
explanations of the "Markaz-e-Millah" is not part of our Deen and not
incumbent upon us to practise, then what is the benefit of all this so-called
2. As far those attacks that are made against the
whole corpus of Ahaadith of our beloved Prophet as being heresy or illusion (zanni)
e.g. humane errors, personal interpretations, personal opinions etc., will the
"Markaz-e-Millah" be safe and error free from such kinds of attacks?
3. Up until the time that the
"Markaz-e-Millah" is established and the details of the broad
principle commands are not formulated, what will be the position of these broad
principle commands? Does this mean that up until that time, these broad
principle commands will not be compulsory? How will a Muslim practise these
broad principle commands of Deen today?
4. Does a host of heresy or assumptions regarding an
incident create certainty or evil suspicions? If they create evil suspicions,
then why has the Noble Qur'an stipulated the number of witnesses? But if these create certainty, then why
are there so much allegations of heresy against the Ahaadith and that it is NOT
a "reality" (yaqeeni)?
(H) OBEYING THE
PROPHET MUHAMMAD (PEACE BE UPON HIM)
1. According to Mr. Parwez, the basic foundational
teaching of the Noble Qur'an is that obedience is made only to Allah and no one
else. (Maqaam-e-Hadith - Urdu: Page 64). Then what is meant by those Prophets
who used to say to their people: "So keep your duty to Allah, fear Him
and obey me." (Chapter 26: Verses 108,110,126)? Should we then believe (ma'aazallah)
that these Prophets were concealing this foundational principle of Allah from
their people? By commanding their
people to follow them without even mentioning Allah with regards to obedience,
were they (ma'aazallah) forcing their people to commit polytheism
2. If obeying our beloved Prophet is not permissible,
then how does it become permissible to obey the "Markaz-e-Millah"
(Authority/Centre/Capital of the Muslim Nation)?
3. What is the reasoning and wisdom of Allah behind
giving the title of "uswatun hasanah" (the best exemplar) to
the personality of the Holy Prophet but not to the Noble Qur'an?
(I) WRITING AND
RECORDING OF THE AHAADITH
1. Imam Muslim narrated that the Prophet said:
"Whoever wrote anything other than the Qur'an, it should be deleted
or wiped out". Is this
Hadith of the Prophet (often quoted by the anti-Hadith modernists) not included
in the verse wherein Allah says: "He does not speak out of his own
desire, but it is revelation revealed" (Chapter 53: Verses 3-4)? If it
is included in this verse, then it is a revelation other than the Qur'an (wahy-ul-khafiyy). If it is not what this verse points to,
then why do these Parwezis accept such a Hadith and regard it as a great proof
against the writing of the Ahaadith?
AND ABROGATING VERSES
1. What is meant when Allah says in the Noble
Qur'an: "We shall make you recite so that you will not forget except
what Allah wills" (Chapter 78: Verses 6,7)?
2. What is that crime of adultery (fahsh)
whose punishment for women is to confine them to their homes until they died,
and the number of witnesses is the same as for adultery? If this crime of adultery (fahsh)
is in the Qur'an, then it is a Hadd Punishment. Can these Parwezis prove to us from any
Islamic History books if such a punishment was ever meted out to any woman
guilty of such a crime?
3. In his Qurani Faisley (Urdu - Page 164), while
mentioning all the punishments (hudood) specified in the Noble
Qur'an, why has Mr. Parwez very conveniently left out this crime of
Has not the punishment of such a crime specified and fixed by Allah in
His Noble Qur'an?
4. In this same verse of the crime and punishment
of "confinement to their homes until death", Allah has
promised to fix another type of punishment. Did Allah fulfil His promise in this
regard? If Allah did fulfil His
promise, then by which verse of the Noble Qur'an chronologically? Also,
is this punishment of "confinement to their homes until death"
still valid today and applicable or is this punishment no longer applicable
(K) LAWS OF
1. Mr. Parwez writes in his Qurani Faisley (Urdu -
Page 121) that all the affairs of inheritance are mainly based on
representation (qaa'im maqaami). From which verse of the Noble
Qur'an can such an important and fundamental principle be proved? Why did Mr. Parwez just create an illusion
or speculation (zann) on this important aspect of Islamic
Law and gave his own personal opinion?
2. Can a dead person become an heir? If a dead person himself cannot become
an heir, then how can he be represented (qaa'im maqaami)?
3. In which verse of the Qur'an is there mention of
the share of an orphan in the wealth left over after the death of his paternal
grandfather? The Prophet was an
orphan of his paternal grandfather Abdul Muttalib, but he did not get a share
from his wealth. Therefore, the
share of an orphan from the wealth of his paternal grandfather should have been
clearly specified in the Qur'an.
Can these Parwezis show us which verse explicitly states this?
4. On reading the commands in the Noble Qur'an on
inheritance, Mr. Parwez writes in his Qurani Faisley (Urdu - Page 113):
"The fact is that the Qur'an has completely and totally mentioned all the
laws of inheritance in just FOUR short verses. This is done with such great
beauty and eloquence that when man ponders over them, then he goes into an
ecstasy or frenzy (wajd) with its miraculous verbosity. Mr. Parwez then goes on to make a
mockery of the law of inheritance in the books of Fiqh.
Let us ask these modernist Parwezis to work out the
law of inheritance and distribution of wealth of the deceased in the following
(a) The wife is to die leaving behind her husband,
3 daughters, and the wife's parents are both alive.
(b) The husband is to die, his wife had already
died, but he has only ONE daughter, and the husband's mother is still living.
(c) The wife is to die. She has NO children but she
leaves behind her husband, and she has TWO sisters.
1. According to Mr. Parwez, making a bequest is
compulsory on every Muslim only because it has been insisted and
repeated FOUR times in the Noble Qur'an.
But we know that wherever there is a verse that mentions bequest,
there is also mention of the fulfilment of one's debt. Now, just going
by this Parwezi logic, if by mentioning the making of bequest FOUR times
makes it compulsory upon every Muslim, then by that very same logic, the
fulfilment of debt appearing FOUR times in those very same verses, also
makes it compulsory for one to take a loan and die without fulfilling it, but
include it as part of a Muslim’s bequest. Does this make any sense?
1. If and when the Markaz-e-Millah establishes the
details of Quranic principles of Law, this will never be included in the
category of "what Allah has revealed". But Allah says in the Qur'an: "And
whosoever does not judge by what Allah has revealed, such are the disbelievers".
Thus, whoever judges or makes decisions other than what Allah has revealed,
then they are kaafiroon (disbelievers), zaalimoon (wrongdoers) and faasiqoon
(disobedient) (Chapter 5: Verses 44,45,47). Will not the obedience to the details of
the broad Quranic principles propounded by the Markaz-e-Millah also be kufr and
2. In this present age, is it possible for all the
world's governments to be in agreement with ONE Markaz-e-Millah? If each Muslim country establishes its
own Markaz-e-Millah, then each country will interpret the details of Quranic Laws
differently according to their own conditions and requirements. On this basis,
the result will be various groups and parties with prejudice, disunity and
confusion. What will be the Parwezi solution to this outcome?
(O) AHAADITH AS
1. If the Ahaadith is not a proof (hujjah),
then why are the Mawdoo' (fabricated) Ahaadith used by the anti-Hadith
modernist Parwezis to deny the whole corpus of Hadith; and why is this campaign
still prevalent up to this day?
2. If we deny the Ahaadith as proof (hujjah), can we
then prove the preservation of the Noble Qur'an? According to Mr. Parwez, the Ahaadith
are heresy and illusions (zanni), then how can we prove the
Qur'an to be certain (yaqeeni)? Surely the internal evidences are NOT
proofs by themselves unless and until the preservation of such evidences are
not proven by external means.
NIZAAM-E-RUBUBIWAT – BOGUS IDEOLOGY
1. If the Noble Qur'an denies personal wealth or if
Allah thinks it better to deny accumulation of wealth by a person, then why
were the Laws of Inheritance revealed during the last part of the Prophet's
2. If personal wealth is disliked in the Noble
Qur'an and NOT permissible in the eyes of Islam, then why does the Qur'an
prescribe the punishment of stealing?
3. Why was the command to take Zakaah from people
directed to the Islamic State and was revealed towards the last part of the
(RECITATION) OF THE NOBLE QUR'AN
1. Huroof Al-Muqatta'aat and Ayaat
Al-Mutashaabihaat contain neither a command nor any principle of
Islamic Law. When we see no benefit in them as far as Islamic Law is concerned,
do we still have to recite such verses or not? Why did Allah include them in the Noble
Qur'an from which we cannot derive any rules or commands, when in Mr. Parwez's
view the Qur'an is just only a Book of Law?
Requesting your humble du’as!
Abdul Haq Abdul Kadir
Umhlanga Ridge, Kwa-Zulu